Firangi

ariel · 4th May 2020, 01:56 PM

Yes David, it makes perfect sense: combining a 16 century European blade with an old European handle makes much better economic sense than using an Indian handle :-)

On the other hand a “ Europe/ Orient” combination may be fully legitimate. The best example is the use of trade blades; also, British sold their outdated blades to local Nizams and Rajahs in the first half of 19th century and let’s not forget about the trophies: even Tipu had one. Also, high ranking British officers used local Indian wootz blades with their regulation handles.

I am beginning to think about a new topic: legitimately old chimeric India-related swords. Might be fun:-)

4th May 2020, 01:56 PM	#1
ariel Member Join Date: Dec 2004 Location: Ann Arbor, MI Posts: 5,503	Yes David, it makes perfect sense: combining a 16 century European blade with an old European handle makes much better economic sense than using an Indian handle :-) On the other hand a “ Europe/ Orient” combination may be fully legitimate. The best example is the use of trade blades; also, British sold their outdated blades to local Nizams and Rajahs in the first half of 19th century and let’s not forget about the trophies: even Tipu had one. Also, high ranking British officers used local Indian wootz blades with their regulation handles. I am beginning to think about a new topic: legitimately old chimeric India-related swords. Might be fun:-)