Colonial hanger, Spanish dagger or ?

[celtan]

Hi D,

Slave trade virtually ceased to exist in Spain after 1760, when all the Islamic slaves in Spain were sold to the Sultan Of Morocco.

Spain did try to stop the slave trade within its dominions, but the American colonies refused to accept this, since most of their local industries were based in slave work. Curiously, the creole-supported revolutions did end slavery in the former colonies, albeit it was the creole financial elite which had insisted on it in their differences with the Metropolis.



Since 1805, Spain tried to put into place abolitionist policies. Yet, even after the Revolutionary Wars in America, it was a colony, Cuba, which prevented the passing of these laws. Cuba was so profitable, that its custom revenues paid by itself all of the expenses of the Spanish Government..! What Cuba wanted, it usually got.

Heck, In the 1860s, the Cuban criollos economic elite even threatened to join the USA if Spain forced the issue.

Slavery was abolished in Spain de facto in 1873 with the outing of Amadeo de Saboya as King, who had persistently refused to take action on same, as requested by the Spanish people. Slavery was then generally condemned all through Spain.

Even so, the number of slaves and involvement in the slave trade for Spain was puny, compared to the US, England et al. Most of the slaves in Spanish territories were in fact acquired from England et al.

LBNL, IIRC, Brasil outlawed slavery even later. And if truth be known, slavery is still alive and well in many regions of the globe, even on our enlightened third millennnium.

Best

M

Originally Posted by katana

Hi Mark,


Interestingly Spain apparently continued in the slave trade, after the other countries had abolished it.

All the best
David